Chapter 3: Structure and Function of the Cell

Chapter 3: Structure and Function of the Cell Multiple Choice 1. The structural and functional unit of all living organisms is the A)ribosome. B)cell. C)organ. D)organelle. E)plasma membrane. Answer: b Level: 1 2. Which of the following could be used to study general features of cells? A)a magnifying glass B)scanning electron microscope C)transmission electron microscope D)binoculars E)light microscope Answer: e Level: 1 3. In order to study in detail, the anatomy of internal cell parts, it would be best to use A)x-rays. B)flashlights. C)a transmission electron microscope (TEM). D)tissue cultures. E)a scanning electron microscope (SEM).Answer: c Level: 1 4. The plasma membrane A)separates the nucleus from the rest of the cell. B)is a rigid protein membrane. C)is not permeable. D)has a single layer of phospholipids. E)regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell. Answer: e Level: 1 5. The environment outside the plasma membrane is most appropriately referred to as A)intrac ellular. B)extracellular. C)multicellular. D)centrocellular. E)none of the above. Answer: b Level: 1 6. The fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane suggests that A)cholesterol forms the outermost layer of the membrane. B)proteins form a â€Å"liquid† sea in the membrane.C)phospholipids form a single lipid layer in the center of the membrane. D)the membrane is neither rigid nor static in structure. E)proteins are not a part of the membrane. Answer: d Level: 1 7. According to the most current model of the plasma membrane A)cholesterol forms the innermost layer of the membrane B)proteins are free to move about with a double layer of phospholipids C)phospholipids and cholesterol form a single lipid bilayer D)the membrane is a rigid unchanging structure E)the membrane is impermeable to all other molecules. Answer: b Level: 1 8. Which of the following activities is a function of the plasma membrane?A)digestion of unneeded cell organelles B)recognition of bacterial cells by the im mune system C)transport of products from the nucleus to the endoplasmic reticulum D)cell metabolism E)detoxification Answer: b Level: 2 9. Plasma membrane phospholipids A)have polar (charged) tails. B)are arranged in a single layer. C)have tails that face the exterior of the membrane. D)are 95% cholesterol. E)have a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails. Answer: e Level: 1 10. Which of the following is correctly matched with its function? A)channel proteins – are part of an intercellular communication system B)marker molecules – are primarily steroidsC)receptor molecules – attach to ligand molecules. D)peripheral proteins – penetrate the lipid bilayer from one surface to the other. E)nongated ion channels – are always closed. Answer: c Level: 1 11. In general, water-soluble molecules diffuse through the ______ ______; and lipid-soluble molecules diffuse through the ______ ______. A)protein channels; protein channels B)protein channels; bilipid lay er C)bilipid layer; protein channels D)bilipid layer; bilipid layer E)none of the above Answer: b Level: 2 12. Cell membrane phospholipids A)have nonpolar fatty acid tails. B)form a bilayer. C)have polar phosphate heads.D)create a selectively permeable barrier. E)all of the above Answer: e Level: 1 13. When a sperm cell comes into contact with an egg cell, there is a change in the electrical charge across the plasma membrane and various channel proteins close. These channels would be called A)open-gated channels. B)voltage-gated channels. C)chemical-gated channels. D)ligand-gated channels. E)nongated ion channels. Answer: b Level: 2 14. Communication between cells occurs when chemical messengers from one cell bind to _____ on another cell. A)channel proteins B)receptor molecules C)marker molecules D)second messengersE)integrins. Answer: b Level: 1 15. Channel proteins A)are binding sites for other molecules. B)utilize the G protein complex to function. C)are found only on endoplasmi c reticulum. D)allow cells to recognize one another. E)provide a â€Å"door† through which extracellular molecules can enter the cell Answer: e Level: 1 16. Molecules that serve as chemical signals in cell to cell communication are called A)isotopes. B)ligands. C)responders. D)communicators. E)membrane potentials. Answer: b Level: 1 17. Cells that respond to ligands A)possess receptor sites for specific ligands. B)generally produce the ligands.C)have lysosomes that destroy the ligands. D)are using electrical signals in cellualar communication. E)are not functional. Answer: a Level: 1 18. Membrane-bound receptors A)are small, lipid soluble molecules. B)have their receptor sites on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. C)can interact with DNA in the nucleus. D)do not exhibit specificity. E)have no effect on the cell. Answer: b Level: 1 19. Consider the following events and choose the one that occurs last. A)Acetylcholine is released from neurons. B)Acetylcholine diffuses ac ross the synapse to the receptor. C)Na+ ion channels in the plasma membrane are opened.D)Acetylcholine binds to membrane-bound receptors on skeletal muscle cells E)Na+ ions diffuse into skeletal muscle cells. Answer: e Level: 2 20. G proteins are found associated with the A)nucleus. B)cytoplasm. C)Golgi body. D)plasma membrane. E)ribosome. Answer: d Level: 1 21. Communication between cells is essential to coordinate the activity of the trillions of cell that make up the human body. Which of the following is (are) directly involved in carrying out communication between cells? A)lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane B)receptor molecules of plasma membrane C)chemical signal molecules released by cells D)mitochondriaE)b and c Answer: e Level: 1 22. The plasma membrane is selectively permeable. This means A)only gases and water can pass through it. B)substances need permission to pass through it. C)only certain substances can pass through it. D)substances need carrier molecules to pass th rough it. E)ATP is always needed to move molecules across the plasma membrane. Answer: c Level: 1 23. Vitamin A, a fat-soluble vitamin, would move across the plasma membrane into the cell A)in vesicles. B)through vitamin membrane channels. C)by dissolving in the lipid bilayer. D)by transport with carrier molecules. E)by active transport. Answer: c Level: 2 24.Which of the following statements concerning membrane transport across the plasma membrane is true? A)Polar molecules are transported more easily than nonpolar molecules. B)Lipid-soluble substances pass through the membrane by dissolving in the lipid bilayer. C)Water cannot move through the membrane. D)Generally, cations pass through the membrane more easily than anions. E)All molecules are moved across by active transport. Answer: b Level: 1 25. The aroma of cookies baking in the kitchen reaches you in the living room. The distribution of this odor throughout the house is an example of A)active transport. B)dialysis. C)osmosis . D)filtration.E)simple diffusion. Answer: e Level: 2 26. In the process of diffusion, net movement of substances is always from a region A)outside the cell to a region inside the cell. B)inside the cell to a region outside the cell. C)of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration. D)of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. E)none of the above Answer: d Level: 1 27. Which of the following will increase the rate of diffusion? A)an increase in the viscosity of the solvent B)an increase in the temperature C)an increase in the molecular weight of the diffusing particles D)an increase in the distance the molecules have to travelE)all of the above Answer: b Level: 1 28. Salt was added to a beaker of distilled water (the water was not stirred). A sample taken from the bottom of the beaker was found to be 20% salt. At the same time, a sample taken from the top of the beaker was found to be 2% salt. After 24 hours A)the difference in the percentage of salt bet ween the top and bottom samples would increase. B)the percentage of salt in top and bottom samples would be approximately equal. C)the samples would still be 2% and 20% respectively. D)the salt would float to the top. E)none of the above Answer: b Level: 2 29.The movement of oxygen from the alveoli of the lungs into the bloodstream is an example of A)diffusion. B)osmosis. C)active transport. D)bulk transport. E)facilitated diffusion. Answer: a Level: 2 30. Osmosis is the diffusion of _____ across a selectively permeable membrane. A)urea B)oxygen C)water D)sodium E)sugar Answer: c Level: 1 31. Solution A contains 5 grams of sugar per liter while solution B contains 2 grams of sugar per liter. The solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. If the solvent in both solutions is water, predict in which direction most of the water molecules will move.A)move by simple diffusion from solution A to solution B B)move by osmosis from solution B to solution A C)move by active t ransport from solution B to solution A D)move by filtration from solution A to solution B E)there will be no movement of water Answer: b Level: 3 32. The greater the concentration of a solution, the greater A)the tendency for water to diffuse from the solution. B)the osmotic pressure of the solution. C)the number of carrier molecules present. D)the amount of solvent. E)the rate of facilitated diffusion. Answer: b Level: 1 33. A red blood cell that is placed in a hypertonic solution, A)gains water.B)loses water. C)floats. D)ruptures. E)neither gains nor loses water. Answer: b Level: 2 34. If 0. 9% saline solution is isotonic to a cell, then a 0. 5% saline solution A)is hypertonic to the cell. B)will cause crenation of the cell. C)is hypotonic to the cell. D)will shrink the cell. E)will not affect the cell. Answer: c Level: 2 35. A person suffered from burns over a large part of his body. Evaporation of fluid from the surface of burned areas occurs. As a result of the evaporation proc ess, cells will tend to A)shrink. B)swell. C)rupture. D)first swell and then resume their original shape. E)remain unchanged. Answer: aLevel: 2 36. Plasma has an osmolality of 300 mOsm. A solution isosmotic with plasma has an osmolality of A)150 mOsm. B)300 mOsm. C)450 mOsm. D)600 mOsm. E)900 mOsm. Answer: b Level: 2 37. A runner produced hypotonic sweat while running a marathon in hot weather. After the race he drank large volumes of water, as a result of the water intake his body cells will A)shrink. B)swell. C)crenate. D)shrivel. E)not change. Answer: b Level: 2 38. The movement of a solution across a plasma membrane because of a pressure gradient is called A)diffusion. B)osmosis. C)facilitated diffusion. D)active transport. E)filtration. Answer: eLevel: 1 39. Which of the following would increase the rate of mediated transport? A)increase the number of available carrier molecules B)change the shape of the binding site on the carrier molecule C)increase the number of competitive molecules D)fill all binding sites on carrier molecules E)remove the binding site on the carrier molecule Answer: a Level: 2 40. A particular membrane transport process exhibits saturation, uses carrier molecules, but does not require ATP. The process is probably A)active transport. B)facilitated diffusion. C)osmosis. D)pinocytosis. E)phagocytosis. Answer: b Level: 2 41. Active transportA)follows osmotic pressure gradients. B)can move substances along their concentration gradient. C)does not requires metabolic energy (ATP). D)involves vesicle formation. E)requires ATP. Answer: e Level: 1 42. Which of the following are consistent with active transport? 1. movement is against a concentration gradient 2. movement is with a concentration gradient 3. involves a carrier molecule 4. can involve cotransport 5. can involve counter transport 6. exhibits competition and saturation A)1, 3, 4, 5, 6 B)2, 3, 4, 5 C)2, 3, 4, 5, 6 D)1, 3, 4, 6 E)1, 3, 5, 6 Answer: a Level: 2 43. Cyanide stops the pr oduction of ATP.Which of the following processes would be affected? A)simple diffusion B)osmosis C)active transport D)facilitated diffusion E)filtration Answer: c Level: 2 44. The sodium-potassium exchange pump located in the plasma membrane A)actively transports potassium into cells. B)osmotically moves sodium into cells. C)actively transports water out of cells. D)moves chlorine out of cells. E)actively transports sodium into cells. Answer: a Level: 1 45. When ions or molecules involved in secondary active transport move in the same direction, the process is called A)facilitated diffusion. B)counter-transport. C)exocytosis. D)cotransport. E)endocytosis.Answer: d Level: 1 46. Which of the following events occurs in the secondary active transport of glucose? A)Na+ ions and glucose are cotransported by the same carrier molecule. B)The Na+-K+ pump maintains a Na+ concentration gradient inside the cell. C)Energy comes from diffusion of Na+ down their concentration gradient. D)Glucose i s moved against its concentration gradient into the cell. E)all of the above Answer: e Level: 2 47. A group of cells was treated with a proteolytic (protein-digesting) enzyme. Which of the following processes would be least affected by this treatment? A)diffusion of sodium through sodium membrane channelsB)diffusion of lipid-soluble molecules through the plasma membrane C)use of carrier molecules in facilitated diffusion D)sodium-potassium exchange pump E)secondary active transport Answer: b Level: 2 48. Certain cells in the liver ingest bacteria and debris from damaged cells by a process called A)pinocytosis. B)phagocytosis. C)biocytosis. D)calmly regulated diffusion. E)exocytosis. Answer: b Level: 2 49. Pinocytosis A)is a form of exocytosis. B)involves ingestion of liquids rather than particles. C)does not require ATP. D)forms vesicles only when large amounts of material are being transported. E)does not require the formation of vesicles.Answer: b Level: 1 50. Endocytosis A)is mov ement of water through a selectively permeable membrane. B)is a process that requires a carrier molecule but does not use cellular energy. C)is the bulk uptake of material through the plasma membrane by vesicle formation. D)moves material out of the cell. E)ends cell functions. Answer: c Level: 1 51. Arrange the following events of exocytosis in the correct sequence: 1. vesicle membrane fuses with plasma membrane 2. secretory vesicles migrate to plasma membrane 3. vesicle contents are expelled from cell 4. secretions accumulate within secretory vesicles A)2, 1, 4, 3B)1, 4, 2, 3 C)3, 1, 4, 2 D)4, 2, 1, 3 E)1, 2, 3, 4 Answer: d Level: 3 52. Receptor-mediated endocytosis A)does not need ATP; the receptors supply the energy. B)exhibits specificity. C)occurs if oxygen is available. D)is a type of passive transport. E)moves materials out of the cell. Answer: b Level: 1 53. Which of the following are consistent with facilitated diffusion? 1. movement is against a concentration gradient 2. movement is with a concentration gradient 3. involves a carrier molecule 4. involves cotransport 5. involves counter transport 6. exhibits competition and saturation A)1, 2, 4, 5, 6 B)2, 3, 6C)2, 3, 5, 6 D)1, 3, 4, 5, 6 E)2, 3, 4, 6 Answer: b Level: 2 54. Which of the following would increase the maximum rate of facilitated diffusion? A)increase the concentration gradient of the transported molecule B)decrease the concentration gradient of the transported molecule C)increase the concentration of the competitive molecules D)increased ATP synthesis E)none of the above Answer: e Level: 3 55. If a toxic drug inhibited mRNA synthesis, which of the following would be most directly affected? A)protein synthesis B)intracellular digestion C)microtubule production D)secretion of glycoproteins and lipoproteinsE)active transport Answer: a Level: 2 56. Cytoplasm is found A)in the nucleus. B)outside the nucleus but inside the plasma membrane. C)in the cisternae of the endoplasmic reticulum. D)on the cristae of the mitochondria. E)between the phospholipids in the plasma membrane. Answer: b Level: 1 57. The cytoskeleton consists of A)lipochromes, microfilaments, and microtubules. B)actin filaments, mitochondria, and intermediate filaments. C)microfilaments, mitochondria, and lipochromes. D)microtubules, actin filaments, and intermediate filaments. E)ribosomes, the nucleus, and the Golgi apparatus. Answer: d Level: 1 58.Absence of a cytoskeleton might affect A)cell shape. B)the number of channel proteins in the cell membrane. C)the ability of the cell to generate energy. D)vesicle formation. E)membrane transport. Answer: a Level: 1 59. Microtubules A)are the smallest components of the cytoskeleton. B)contains the protein myosin. C)provide structure and support to the cytoplasm. D)are solid, supporting rods of protein. E)are a component of mitochondria. Answer: c Level: 1 60. Of the organelles listed, which one does not contain microtubules? A)cilia B)flagella C)centrioles D)mi crovilli E)basal bodies Answer: d Level: 1 61.Organelles A)are extracellular structures. B)are unspecialized portions of a cell. C)generally lack membranes. D)vary in number and type depending on cell function. E)are structural, but not functional parts of the cell. Answer: d Level: 2 62. Which of the following organelles function in the destruction of nonfunctional organelles? A)endoplasmic reticulum B)centrioles C)basal bodies D)lysosomes E)mitochondria Answer: d Level: 1 63. Ribosomes are organelles responsible for A)protein synthesis. B)manufacturing lipids. C)cell movement and cell shape. D)packaging â€Å"cell products† for export. E)energy production.Answer: a Level: 1 64. Cells that lack ribosomes cannot A)produce energy. B)eliminate wastes. C)engage in protein synthesis. D)package cellular products. E)ingest and phagocytize bacteria. Answer: c Level: 1 65. Skeletal muscle cells need large numbers of _______ to make the many proteins they contain. A)centrosomes B)pero xisomes C)liposomes D)ribosomes E)lysosomes Answer: d Level: 2 66. If you compare a cell with a manufacturing plant that exports goods, the cell's _____ could be compared to the manufacturing plant's shipping department. A)nucleus B)lysosome C)Golgi apparatus D)endoplasmic reticulumE)ribosome Answer: c Level: 2 67. The organelle that protects cells from the damaging effects of medications and toxins is the A)ribosome. B)microtubule. C)secretory vesicle. D)smooth endoplasmic reticulum. E)mitochondria. Answer: d Level: 1 68. The function of the Golgi apparatus is A)packaging and distribution of proteins and lipids. B)production of microtubules. C)excretion of excess salt. D)DNA replication. E)energy production. Answer: a Level: 1 69. Endoplasmic reticulum with ribosomes attached to it is called A)smooth ER. B)dendritic ER. C)nodular ER. D)bumpy ER. E)rough ER. Answer: e Level: 1 70.A cell that produces many proteins for secretion from the cell would have large numbers of A)rough ER an d Golgi. B)lysosomes and Golgi. C)Golgi and microvilli. D)ribosomes and centrioles. E)mitochondria and cilia. Answer: a Level: 2 71. Arrange the following in correct sequence: 1. Protein moves through ER and then carried in vesicles to Golgi. 2. Vesicle pinches off from Golgi and carries product to plasma membrane. 3. Golgi modifies protein and then packages them into vesicles. 4. Protein made by ribosomes on rough ER. A)1, 2, 3, 4 B)4, 1, 3, 2 C)2, 3, 1, 4 D)3, 2, 4, 1 E)4, 3, 2, 1 Answer: b Level: 2 72.A toxic drug destroyed the Golgi apparatus. This would affect A)ribosomal RNA synthesis. B)intracellular digestion. C)energy production. D)microtubule production. E)packaging of glycoproteins and lipoproteins. Answer: e Level: 2 73. The intracellular digestive system of a cell is the A)lysosome. B)microtubule. C)lipochrome. D)rough endoplasmic reticulum. E)smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Answer: a Level: 1 74. White blood cells eat other cells and would be expected to A)have large num bers of lysosomes. B)possess cilia on their surfaces so they can move quickly. C)excrete excess salt as a result of all this eating.D)expel their nuclei to make room for all of the cells they eat. E)have mitochondria to energize them. Answer: a Level: 2 75. Which of the following activities is associated with lysosomes? A)exocytosis B)intracellular support C)destruction of nonfunctional organelles D)energy production E)endocytosis Answer: c Level: 1 76. A cell with abundant peroxisomes would most likely be involved in A)secretion. B)storage of glycogen. C)detoxification activities. D)cellular communication. E)protein synthesis. Answer: c Level: 1 77. Damaged cells can destroy nearby healthy cells when they release ________ enzymes. A)mitochondrialB)nuclear C)microtubular D)lysosomal E)cytoplasmic Answer: d Level: 1 78. A cell's ability to replenish ATP is reduced by a metabolic poison. Which organelle is being affected? A)nucleus B)centriole C)microtubule D)mitochondrion E)ribosomes Answer: d Level: 2 79. Experimental manipulation to increase the energy output of the cell might include A)rupturing the lysosomes in the cell. B)increasing the number of mitochondria. C)decreasing nuclear size. D)removing some of the ribosomes. E)increasing protein synthesis. Answer: b Level: 1 80. Which of the following terms does not relate to the mitochondria? A)cristaeB)self-replicating C)outer and inner membranes D)ATP E)vitamin A storage Answer: e Level: 1 81. When a person trains for running long distances, which of the following organelles increase in his/her muscles? A)rough endoplasmic reticulum B)enzymes for glycolysis C)basal bodies D)lysosomes E)mitochondria Answer: e Level: 2 82. You are looking at a cell with the electron microscope and you notice the following characteristics: presence of many mitochondria and lysosomes; few, if any, Golgi; and many ribosomes. Which of the following is the most likely function of that cell? A)secretion of lipids B)intracellular dig estionC)DNA replication D)modification of protein E)absorption of nutrients Answer: b Level: 2 83. Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched? A)mitochondria – cristae B)Golgi apparatus – cisternae C)lysosomes – hydrolytic enzymes D)smooth endoplasmic reticulum — chromatin E)cilia – basal bodies Answer: d Level: 1 84. Mitochondria A)contains DNA. B)have inner and outer membranes. C)have inner folds called cristae. D)are the cell’s power plants. E)all of the above Answer: e Level: 1 85. Which of the following cell organelles is correctly matched with its function? A)nucleolus – contains the genetic material of the cellB)microtubules – cell support C)mitochondria – protein synthesis D)smooth ER – ATP production E)ribosome – energy production Answer: b Level: 1 86. A cell can meet increased energy demands by an A)increase in its overall size so it has more room to generate energy. B)increase in the nu mber of mitochondria. C)increase in lysosomal enzyme and ribosome activity within the cell. D)increase in nuclear DNA activity. E)increase in ribosomal subunits. Answer: b Level: 1 87. A cell uses centrioles in the process of A)cell division. B)energy generation. C)protein synthesis. D)RNA replication. E)nuclear centering.Answer: a Level: 1 88. Cilia and flagella are distinguished from each other on the basis of A)width and numbers. B)length and numbers. C)depth and numbers. D)length and width. E)none of the above Answer: b Level: 1 89. Microvilli A)are extensions of the lysosomal membrane. B)function to make the cell mobile. C)are supported by microtubules. D)move the cell. E)increase the surface area of the cell. Answer: e Level: 1 90. Which of the following cell organelles does not contain microtubules? A)cilia B)flagella C)spindle fibers D)centrioles E)All of the above contain microtubules. Answer: e Level: 1 91.The â€Å"control center† of the cell is the A)nucleus. B)ri bosome. C)mitochondrion. D)plasma membrane. E)endoplasmic reticulum. Answer: a Level: 1 92. Which of the following events occurs in the nucleus? A)large and small ribosomal subunits combine B)ribosomal proteins formed C)large and small ribosomal subunits form D)formation of free ribosomes E)None of the above occur in the nucleus. Answer: c Level: 1 93. Which of the following structures is found in the nucleus? A)cristae B)cytosol C)cisternae D)chromosome E)flattened membrane sacs Answer: d Level: 1 94. The nucleus of a cell functions to A)digest lipids.B)produce ATP. C)produce secretory vesicles. D)control and coordinate cellular activities. E)synthesize proteins. Answer: d Level: 1 95. Nucleoli A)are located in the cytoplasm. B)produce ribosomal subunits. C)have a distinct membrane. D)are important for the formation of the Golgi apparatus. E)regulates movement of materials into the nucleus. Answer: b Level: 1 96. Which of the following correctly matches a nuclear structure with its function? A)chromosomes – contains RNA and histones B)nuclear envelope – contains the nucleolar organizer C)nuclear pores – allow molecules to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm.D)chromatin – fluid portion of the nucleus E)nucleolus – DNA synthesis Answer: c Level: 1 97. Glycolysis A)converts glycogen to glucose. B)reduces pyruvic acid to carbon dioxide and water. C)converts glucose to pyruvic acid. D)is oxygen dependent. E)does not occur in the cell. Answer: c Level: 1 98. Aerobic respiration occurs when _______ is available. A)carbon dioxide B)oxygen C)lactic acid D)light E)nitrogen Answer: b Level: 1 99. Anaerobic respiration A)occurs in cells when oxygen supplies do not meet cell demands. B)produces 38 ATP molecules per glucose molecule. C)occurs in the mitochondria.D)frequently involves the electron transport system. E)is referred to as the â€Å"citric acid cycle. † Answer: a Level: 1 100. Messenger RNA A)is synthesized when a por tion of a DNA molecule is transcribed. B)directs the synthesis of DNA. C)determines the sequence of nucleotides in the anticodons of tRNA. D)directs the synthesis of centrioles in the cytoplasm. E)is not involved in the synthesis of proteins. Answer: a Level: 1 101. The transfer of information from DNA to messenger RNA (mRNA) is known as A)transduction. B)translocation. C)translation. D)transcription. E)transmutation. Answer: d Level: 1 102.Which of the following sequences is correct? A)translation ( protein synthesis ( transcription B)transcription ( translation ( protein synthesis C)transcription ( protein synthesis ( translation D)translation ( transcription ( protein synthesis E)protein synthesis ( translation (transcription Answer: b Level: 1 103. Translation A)requires three types of DNA. B)requires the pairing of codons on mRNA with anticodons on tRNA. C)involves synthesis of RNA from DNA molecules. D)takes place in the nucleus. E)requires replication of DNA. Answer: b Level: 1 104. Which of the following molecules contains the anticodon?A)mRNA B)rRNA C)tRNA D)DNA E)none of the above Answer: c Level: 1 105. If a mRNA molecule is 1800 nucleotides (bases) in length, this molecule will contain _____ codons. A)400 B)600 C)800 D)900 E)1200 Answer: b Level: 2 106. The sequence of nucleotides in a messenger RNA molecule is needed to determine the A)sequence of nucleotides in a gene. B)sequence of amino acids in a protein. C)sequence of nucleotides in the anticodons of tRNA. D)sequence of codons in DNA. E)sequence of amino acids in DNA. Answer: b Level: 1 107. Transcription A)requires three types of RNA. B)synthesizes RNA from DNA.C)occurs at the ribosomes. D)copies information from mRNA to tRNA. E)synthesizes DNA from RNA. Answer: b Level: 1 108. A DNA base sequence is A T G C C G. The sequence of bases in a strand of mRNA transcribed from this sequence of bases in DNA would be A)T A C G G C. B)U T C G G U. C)U A C G G C. D)A U G C C G. E)T A G G G G Answer: c Level: 2 109. The anticodon sequence GUA pairs with which of the following codons? A)CAT B)GUA C)CTU D)CAU E)CTT Answer: d Level: 2 110. Posttranscriptional processing is the modification of A)proteins to form pro-proteins. B)mRNA to form tRNA. C)pre-mRNA to form functional mRNA.D)exons to form introns. E)DNA. Answer: c Level: 1 111. Determine the sequence of the following events in a cell after exposure of the cell to a chemical signal. 1. increased synthesis of a protein 2. the chemical signal combined with a cytoplasmic receptor 3. an increase in the nuclear concentration of the chemical 4. an increase in mRNA synthesis 5. genes are activated A)2, 1, 3, 5, 4 B)2, 4, 5, 3, 2 C)2, 3, 5, 4, 1 D)2, 3, 4, 5, 1 E)1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Answer: c Level: 3 112. DNA replication results in two new DNA molecules. Each of these new molecules A)has two newly synthesized strands of nucleotides.B)has one strand of nucleotides from the parent DNA and one newly synthesized strand of nucleotides. C)has tw o strands of nucleotides from the parent. D)has a single strand of nucleotides. E)are incomplete copies of the original. Answer: b Level: 1 113. In DNA replication, A)the leading strand is formed as a continuous strand. B)new nucleotides are added at the 5†² end of the growing DNA strand. C)DNA polymerase splices the short segments of the lagging strand together. D)only introns are replicated. E)the two existing strands are not used as templates. Answer: a Level: 1 114. MitosisA)forms two daughter cells with half the DNA of the mother cell. B)forms two daughter cells with the same amount of DNA as the mother cell. C)forms daughter cells called gametes. D)forms two daughter cells with twice the amount of DNA as the mother cell. E)forms one daughter cell and another incomplete cell. Answer: b Level: 1 115. Human somatic cells contain _____ chromosomes, human gametes contain _____ chromosomes. A)23; 46 B)23; 23 C)46; 46 D)46; 23 E)92; 46 Answer: d Level: 1 116. DNA synthesis occur s during A)the G1 phase of interphase. B)telophase. C)the S phase of interphase. D)anaphase. E)metaphase. Answer: cLevel: 1 117. In prophase A)the chromosomes condense, shorten, and thicken. B)the spindle fibers disappear. C)the chromosomes replicate. D)cytokinesis occurs. E)DNA is synthesized. Answer: a Level: 1 118. Which of the following events occurs during anaphase? A)Chromatin strands condense to form chromosomes. B)Chromosomes migrate to opposite poles of the cell. C)Spindle fibers are formed. D)The nuclear envelope degenerates. E)Cytokinesis Answer: b Level: 1 119. Meiosis is the process of cell division that results in the formation of A)skin cells. B)gametes (egg and sperm). C)diploid cells. D)malignant cells. E)somatic cells.Answer: b Level: 1 120. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence. 1. pairs of homologous chromosomes separate 2. tetrad formation occurs 3. second meiotic division 4. tetrads align at the equatorial plate 5. interkinesis A)1, 3, 5, 2, 4 B)2, 4, 1, 5, 3 C)3, 1, 4, 5, 2 D)4, 1, 2, 5, 3 E)2, 4, 1, 3, 5 Answer: b Level: 2 121. Each of the cells that result from meiosis A)has the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. B)has half the number of chromosomes as the original cell. C)has one-fourth the number of chromosomes as the original cell. D)has twice the number of chromosomes as the original cell.E)has no chromosomes Answer: b Level: 1 122. Crossing over A)occurs during mitosis. B)increases the amount of genetic diversity. C)results in the formation of chromatids with the same DNA sequences. D)form tetrads. E)decreases the amount of genetic diversity. Answer: b Level: 1 Refer to the following diagram for questions 123-127. [pic] 123. What structure does â€Å"A† represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane? A)membrane channel protein B)phospholipid bilayer C)internal membrane surface D)peripheral protein E)receptor protein Answer: b Level: 1 124. What structure does â€Å"B† represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?A)membrane channel protein B)phospholipid bilayer C)internal membrane surface D)peripheral protein E)receptor protein Answer: a Level: 1 125. What structure does â€Å"C† represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane? A)membrane channel protein B)phospholipid bilayer C)internal membrane surface D)peripheral protein E)receptor protein Answer: e Level: 1 126. What structure does â€Å"D† represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane? A)membrane channel protein B)phospholipid bilayer C)internal membrane surface D)peripheral protein E)receptor protein Answer: d Level: 1 127. What structure does â€Å"E† represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?A)membrane channel protein B)phospholipid bilayer C)internal membrane surface D)peripheral protein E)receptor protein Answer: c Level: 1 Refer to the following diagram for questions 128-132. [pic] 128. Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic , hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution â€Å"A† relative to the RBC? A)hypotonic solution B)hypertonic solution C)isotonic solution D)hemolyzed E)crenated Answer: c Level: 3 129. Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution â€Å"B† relative to the RBC? A)hypotonic solutionB)hypertonic solution C)isotonic solution D)hemolyzed E)crenated Answer: b Level: 3 130. Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution â€Å"C† relative to the RBC? A)hypotonic solution B)hypertonic solution C)isotonic solution D)hemolyzed E)crenated Answer: a Level: 3 131. Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is the condition of the RBC in solution â€Å"C†? A)hypotonic solution B)hypertonic solution C)isotonic solution D)hemolyzed E)crenated Answer: d Level: 3 132.Re d blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is the condition of the RBC in solution â€Å"B†? A)hypotonic solution B)hypertonic solution C)isotonic solution D)hemolyzed E)crenated Answer: e Level: 3 Refer to the following diagram for questions 133-137. [pic] 133. The diagram is an overview of cell metabolism. What does â€Å"A† represent? A)Glucose B)2 lactic acid + 2 ATP C)O2 D)6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 38 ATP E)Pyruvic acid Answer: e Level: 1 134. The diagram is an overview of cell metabolism. What does â€Å"B† represent? A)Glucose B)2 lactic acid + 2 ATP C)O2 D)6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 38 ATP E)Pyruvic acidAnswer: c Level: 1 135. The diagram is an overview of cell metabolism. What does â€Å"C† represent? A)Glucose B)2 lactic acid + 2 ATP C)O2 D)6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 38 ATP E)Pyruvic acid Answer: b Level: 1 136. The diagram is an overview of cell metabolism. What does â€Å"D† represent? A)Glucose B)2 lactic acid + 2 ATP C)O2 D)6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 38 ATP E)Pyruvic acid Answer: a Level: 1 137. The diagram is an overview of cell metabolism. What does â€Å"E† represent? A)Glucose B)2 lactic acid + 2 ATP C)O2 D)6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 38 ATP E)Pyruvic acid Answer: d Level: 1 For questions 138 to 142 match the following processes with the appropriate definition or description.A)requires a carrier molecule but does not use cellular energy B)bulk uptake of material by the formation of a vesicle C)movement of substances from areas of high concentration to areas of less concentration D)movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane E)movement of molecules against their concentration gradient 138. active transport Answer: e Level: 1 139. diffusion Answer: c Level: 1 140. endocytosis Answer: b Level: 1 141. facilitated diffusion Answer: a Level: 1 142. osmosis Answer: d Level: 1 For questions 143 to 147 match the following types of membrane proteins to its function.A)have exposed site on outer cell surface that can attach to ligand B)integral proteins that move ions or molecules across plasma membrane C)form a passageway through the plasma membrane D)allow cells to identify one another E)proteins that can catalyze chemical reactions on inner or outer surface of plasma membrane 143. Marker molecules Answer: d Level: 1 144. Channel protein Answer: c Level: 1 145. Receptor molecules Answer: a Level: 1 146. Enzymes Answer: e Level: 1 147. Carrier proteins Answer: b Level: 1 For questions 148 to 152 match the following cell organelles with the appropriate definition or description.A)source of the spindle fibers B)organelles that produce most of the cell’s energy C)sacs containing hydrolytic enzymes D)sites of protein synthesis E)contains the chromosomes 148. nucleus Answer: e Level: 1 149. ribosomes Answer: d Level: 1 150. lysosomes Answer: c Level: 1 151. mitochondria Answer: b Level: 1 152. centrioles Answer: a Level: 1 For questions 153 to 157 match the followi ng descriptions with the appropriate metabolic pathway. A)aerobic respiration B)anaerobic respiration 153. occurs without oxygen Answer: b Level: 1 154. uses the citric acid cycle and electron transport chain Answer: a Level: 1 155. ccurs in the mitochondria with oxygen Answer: a Level: 1 156. converts pyruvic acid to lactic acid Answer: b Level: 1 157. produces carbon dioxide, water, and ATP Answer: a Level: 1 For questions 158 to 162 match the following cell organelles with the appropriate definition or description. A)organelle where subunits of ribosomes are manufactured B)an organelle of locomotion C)may or may not have ribosomes attached D)small vacuoles containing oxidative enzymes E)package materials for secretion from the cell 158. endoplasmic reticulum Answer: c Level: 1 159. Golgi apparatus Answer: e Level: 1 160. nucleolus Answer: a Level: 1 61. peroxisomes Answer: d Level: 1 162. flagellum Answer: b Level: 1 For questions 163 to 167 match the following stages of the cell cycle with the appropriate description. A)chromosomes align along equator B)cytokinesis is completed at the end of this phase C)time between cell divisions D)chromatin condenses and nucleoli disappear E)chromosomes begin migrating towards poles of the cell 163. interphase Answer: c Level: 1 164. prophase Answer: d Level: 1 165. metaphase Answer: a Level: 1 166. anaphase Answer: e Level: 1 167. telophase Answer: b Level: 1 For questions 168 to 172 match the following molecules with the appropriate escription. A)structural RNA of ribosome B)mRNA containing introns C)protein that is converted to an active enzyme D)all triplets required to code for synthesis of a protein E)three adjacent nucleotides in mRNA 168. pre-mRNA Answer: b Level: 1 169. proenzyme Answer: c Level: 1 170. gene Answer: d Level: 1 171. ribosomal RNA (rRNA) Answer: a Level: 1 172. codon Answer: e Level: 1 For questions 173 to 176 match the cells described with their most abundant organelle. A)mitochondria B)centriol es C)peroxisomes D)lysosomes E) Golgi apparatus 173. white blood cell, a phagocyte Answer: d Level: 2 174. mucus cell (secretes mucus)Answer: e Level: 2 175. liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide Answer: c Level: 2 176. cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP) Answer: a Level: 2 For questions 177 to 184 match the type of cell division with the appropriate description. A)mitosis B)meiosis C)both mitosis & meiosis 177. Responsible for tissue growth and repair Answer: a Level: 2 178. Resulting cells are haploid Answer: b Level: 2 179. Occurs only in testis and ovary Answer: b Level: 2 180. Daughter cells genetically identical to mother cell Answer: a Level: 2 181. DNA replication occurs only once Answer: c Level: 2 182. Tetrad formation occursAnswer: b Level: 2 183. Cytokinesis occurs only once Answer: a Level: 2 184. Crossing over Answer: b Level: 2 For questions 185 to 189 match the following terms relative to theories about cell death and cell aging to the most appr opriate description. A)portions of DNA are lost over time resulting in cell death B)loss of the energy source in the cell C)genes that turn on late in life that cause cell death D)after a certain amount of time or cell divisions, the cell line dies E)atoms or molecules with unpaired electrons that may damage cells 185. Cellular clock Answer: d Level: 1 186. Mitochondrial damage Answer: bLevel: 1 187. DNA damage Answer: a Level: 1 188. Free radicals Answer: e Level: 1 189. Death gene Answer: c Level: 1 Fill in the Blank 190. The predominant lipid in the cell membrane is a _____________. Answer: phospholipid Level: 1 191. Glycolipids would contain both lipids and _____________. Answer: carbohydrates Level: 1 192. The _____________ contains the genetic information of the cell. Answer: nucleus Level: 1 193. Cytosol is part of _____________. Answer: cytoplasm Level: 1 194. The centrioles are found in a zone of cytoplasm close to the nucleus called the _____________. Answer: centrosome Le vel: 1 195.At the base of each cilium is a structure called the _____________. Answer: basal body Level: 1 196. The shaft of a flagellum contains _____________ microtubule doublets around its periphery. Answer: nine (9) Level: 1 197. _____________ is the force required to prevent the movement of water by osmosis across a semipermeable membrane. Answer: osmotic pressure Level: 1 198. In _____________, ions or molecules move in opposite directions. Answer: counter transport Level: 1 199. _____________ is the sum of catabolism and anabolism. Answer: metabolism Level: 1 200. According to base pair rules, adenine pairs with _____________ in DNA replication.Answer: thymine Level: 1 201. In females, the sex chromosomes look alike and are called _____________. Answer: X chromosomes Level: 1 202. The term for â€Å"programmed cell death† is ______________. Answer: apoptosis Level: 1 Essay Questions 203. Explain what would happen to a cell in each of the following events: a. A cell los t its nucleus b. All the lysosomes ruptured c. The phospholipids in the cell membrane were dissolved d. The cell began losing its mitochondria e. The transfer RNA molecules are selectively destroyed by viruses. Answer: (a) Without a nucleus cells are unable to synthesize mRNA and so cannot complete protein synthesis.Lack of a nucleus also prevents cells from duplicating themselves. A cell without a nucleus will have a short life span and eventually die. (b) Rupture of the lysosomes releases hydrolytic enzymes that begin to digest the cell and kill it. (c) If the phospholipids in the cell membrane are dissolved, the membrane loses its integrity and would no longer function as a selective barrier. (d) Loss of mitochondria reduces the capacity of the cell to generate energy. (e) If transfer RNA molecules are selectively destroyed, protein synthesis would be inhibited as no amino acids would be brought to the ribosomes.Level: 2, 1 204. Adriamycin is a chemotherapeutic drug that binds to DNA and blocks messenger RNA synthesis. Explain why this drug is fatal to a cell. Answer: When adriamycin blocks mRNA synthesis, it also blocks further protein synthesis in those cells. These cells cannot synthesize additional proteins (structural or enzymatic) that they might need. They will soon be unable to function, and they will die. Level: 2 205. Lysosomes remove nonfunctional cell parts. Explain how this function is important to the overall health of the cell. Answer: Nonfunctional cell parts take up valuable space in the cell.They are also composed of molecules that the cell might be able to recycle. It is healthier for the cell to be able to eliminate these nonfunctional parts and possibly reuse some of the molecular components of those parts. Level: 2 206. The cell is compartmentalized by the presence of organelles. What advantage does compartmentalization give to the cell? Answer: Compartmentalization enables cells to specialize internally. By partitioning the interior o f a cell, different functions can be undertaken in different structured compartments within the same cell.This property allows cells to do more than one thing. Level: 2 207. Describe the relationship among ribosomes, ER, the Golgi apparatus, and exocytosis. Answer: Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis. Some of the proteins have leader sequences on them, which allow them to be inserted into the cisternae of the endoplasmic reticula to which the ribosomes are attached. The proteins can travel in the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus, where they can be modified and packaged for secretion. Vesicles break off from the flattened membranous sacs of the Golgi apparatus.Some of the vesicles carry proteins to the plasma membrane, where the proteins can be secreted from the cell by exocytosis. Level: 2 208. You work for the I. M. the Best Drug Company. Your latest assignment is to design a drug that interferes with translation in cells. You decide the easiest way to do this is to have your drug target those organelles and molecules involved in translation. List the potential targets of your new drug. Answer: Potential targets include: large and small ribosomal subunits, messenger RNA, transfer RNA, any enzyme needed in translation. Level: 2

Diversity: Culture and America Essay

Beginning with the prospect of the American dream, diversity has been one of the most dominant characteristics of American society. During the nineteenth century, America was deemed a melting pot: a place where people of different ethnicities could co-exist. The idea of people being able to embrace commonalities without letting go of their culture has been the basis of the America that we live in today. This sense of collaboration, which comes with diversity, has created outlets for our citizens and opportunities for those foreign to our country. Diversity is one of the most beneficial aspects of not only America’s history, but its present and future. Diversity is what makes America unique. As said in Mirror on America by Leonard Pitts, â€Å"America is everyone else, a nation composed of other nations, a culture made of other cultures, a history built of other histories.† (Pitts, 82) Pitt’s statement clearly depicts the fact that although America is independent from other countries geographically, the integration of different ethnic groups defines American history. The acceptance of other cultures in America has not only brought over people from different countries, but also their: ideas, beliefs, and opinions. The rewards that we reap from foreign contributions are, but are not limited to, food variety, technological advances, open minded citizens and overall a more tolerant country. America is a place characterized as the land of the free; the diversity in our country is what keeps that statement relevant. Due to the effectiveness of diversity in the workplace, industries and organizations have spent an abundance of time incorporating diversity into their own companies. With the incorporation of diversity in advertisements, employees, and superior positions today’s workplace is more diverse than it has ever been. These implementations of diversity benefit companies by creating a comfortable environment for their buyers, thus stimulating the economy. Although some may argue that companies have not reached the goal of total equality, it has been said that immigrants do have a positive effect on America’s workplace. â€Å"Since the early days of the Republic, talented foreigners have streamed to our shores to till the soil, build industries, and turn the country into a scientific and technological powerhouse. They converted the U.S. into the first global nation, giving us adaptability, an intuitive feel for other cultures, and an innovative edge,† said David Gergen. ( Gergen, 93) In America, we have many immigrants who come here with the hope of becoming successful; those who strive to create a better America by working hard tend to achieve that goal. Those who are able to succeed in their endeavors have provided Americans with the adaptability that Gergen explains. Immigrants have been the brains and ideas of big named, American companies such as Intel, AT&T, Kraft, Google, Yahoo!, and eBay. To understand how immigrants make such an impact on America’s workforce and economy, one needs to think about why they come here in the first place. Immigrants leave their homelands to come to America because they think and believe that their skills will be put to the test. As also said by Gergen, â€Å"Talented foreigners are job creators, not job takers.† (Gergen, 94) Immigrants do bring new ideas and skills which can further create more, successful jobs. Based off of a June 2012 study published by the Fiscal Policy, they report that 18% of small business owners are immigrants. The same report found that among small businesses, for which at least half of the founders were immigrants, employed an estimated 4.7 million people. This diversity benefits America because it puts foreign skills and talents to the test in order to stimulate jobs as well as our economy. In conclusion, with allowing diversity to continue to be a part of America, we can encounter many things other countries cannot. We can continue to accept different people and their ideas to create new jobs and opportunities. We can also accept their opinions to allow America to grow and continue being a strong nation. Last but not least, we can give people from all around the world the â€Å"American dream.† Works Cited Gergen, David. â€Å"A Smart Exception.† Mirror on America: Essays and Images from Popular Culture. 5th ed. Ed Mims, Joan T, and Nollen, Elizabeth M. Boston: Bedford St Martin’s, 2012. 93-94. Print Pitts, Leonard Jr. â€Å"History Tells Hard Stories of Ethnic Clashes.† Mirror on America: Essays and Images from Popular Culture. 5th ed. Ed Mims, Jonas T, and Nollen, Elizabeth M. Boston, Bedford, 2012. 81-82. Print Denhart, Michael. â€Å"The U.S. Needs More Immigrants to Grow the Economy and Create Jobs.† Huffington Post 26 September 2012. Web

The Family As Seen in White Noise by Don DeLillo Essay

The Family As Seen in White Noise by Don DeLillo - Essay Example This has led to the reversed roles between the parents and children. The once solid core of mother, father and children are replaced by a unit of ex-spouses, siblings and step-siblings, a situation brought about by divorce. Jack Gladney, a professor at a local college in Blacksmith, has four children; Mary Alice (aged 19) and Steffie (9), from his first and second marriages to Dana Breed-love; Bee (12), from his marriage to Tweedy Browner and Heinrich (14), from his marriage to Janet Savory (now known as Mother Devi). Of all his children, only Heinrich and Steffie live with him. His wife Babette’s three children are Denis (age 11), Eugene (8), and Wilder(about 2). Blacksmith has been negatively affected by this condition of the family. Blacksmith holds testimony to failed marriages (DeLillo 59). Things change so rapidly that even the family members seem unclear on the details. Jack even refers to family as the â€Å"cradle of the world’s misinformation† (DeLillo 81).In White Noise, DeLillo shows how technology is changing the inner experience of human beings, through waves and radiation. Television serves as a type of new collective unconscious that creates an inner frame of reference to which the mind unconsciously turns. It has become a member of the family. Stephie murmurs "Toyota Celica" in her sleep. At one point, Jack says, â€Å"His skin was a color that I want to call, flesh-toned.† We are moving toward a postmodern mentality.... As a whole, the family members can not handle their emotions and are unable to think for themselves. Money has gained colossal meaning in our time. This has led to a devaluing of other values such as freedom, customer choice and respect for shoppers. DeLillo illustrates how the current world of commerce impacts our minds by manipulating our decisions. He goes further to illustrate that a human nature demonstrates immense vulnerability to such an attack. Ubiquitous commercials lead us to desire to have things we never tried before, to see things not worth seeing, to buy stuff we do not need. The novelist tries to open our eyes to identify and understand how this commercial destructive mechanism works. For instance, in one of the earlier scenes in the novel there is a picture of the family eating lunch. DeLillo focuses our attention on how the food on the table has been packaged: crumpled tinfoil, open cartons, bowl of past substances covered with plastic wrap, flip-to rings and twist ties and shiny bags of potato chips (DeLillo 7). Babette, Jack’s current wife, is a typical example of someone who gets attracted to shiny packages with bold, visible fonts, promising the good taste of the products. She is a perfect target for offensive commercials from the television, shopping malls and advertisements. She does not read the warning tags and shows a lack of interest in calorie values. In another incident, Jack, in a bid to regain his â€Å"lost† authority, takes his whole family to the Mid-Village Mall. They spent hours there, and it is the only time in the whole novel where the members of the family appear to be having a good time. They seem to be happy and satisfied. Jack later admits, â€Å"My family gloried in the event.† Jack surrenders to true shopping fever

The Lost German Slave Girl by John Bailey Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 750 words

The Lost German Slave Girl by John Bailey - Essay Example German families in the New Orleans area claimed that Sally was in fact the child of immigrants who had died and that the girl was subsequently indentured by an unscrupulous owner and later sold into slavery. The main question raised by the piece is whether Sally really was a German girl or whether she was just a clever slave who was grabbing at her once chance for freedom. The fact that the color of a person's skin was the basis of whether they could be enslaved or not shows the racism that was at the heart of this culture. It is fascinating that the case revolved around the fact of whether Sally was German, and thus not deserving of slavery rather than the fact that slavery was morally objectionable per se. The idea that color and slavery were indelibly linked was starting to be threatened by the inter-breeding that had been occurring between slaves and whites for generations. By this time, just a decade before the American Civil War would end slavery, many slaves looked as white as their masters. Thus the very basis of slavery - the supposed inferiority of black races - was called into question by the continuum of color that then existed in America. The lack of certainty as to race was reflected within the legal system, in which slaves were regarded as property and yet, paradoxically, could also have legal representation within trials. Thus if a slave was accused of murder he/she had the right to legal representation, although as the author shows, the degree to which this right was enforced depended very much upon individual circumstances and the judge who was available. Bailey essentially shows a society that is ripe for change. The mysterious origin of Sally Miller reflected the complexity of race that was characteristic of America by the mid nineteenth-century. The simple duality of "slave" and "master" was increasingly being challenged on an ethical and legal basis. Slaves could buy their freedom and many tried to make their way to Northern states where slavery was already abolished. The idea that the identity of a person was set as "slave" or "non-slave" is shown to be too simplistic by the case of Sally Miller. If Miller was indeed of German origin, then a person could move from non-slave to slave because of bad luck and unethical businessmen. If a slave was lucky, earned enough money or had an enlightened master, he could become a non-slave. To conclude, the fact that the case was never resolved in a concrete manner shows the history is often not as certain as many people would like. The actual origin of Sally Miller will probably never be known now, any more than it was proved in the court case. What emerges is the terrible manner in which immigrants were treated in America at this time, even those from supposedly privileged countries such as Germany. The book also shows the complex legal environment of America at the time, and gives a view of the legal position of slaves that has seldom been considered before. Ultimately the book shows the mystery of human nature and identity, especially racial identity. If a slave is more white than her master, what is the basis for the slavery if it is based upon the supposed superiority of whites over blacks The answer was that slavery was based upon cruelty and exploitation rather than any rationally identified differences between races.

History of Art and Visual Culture 1400 - 1900 Essay

History of Art and Visual Culture 1400 - 1900 - Essay Example Conversely, the Visual Art is regarded as a form of intellectual and cognitive learning skills and experiences. For example, the construction of the circle, rectangular drawings, and painting composition procedures are described to be having ability of demanding high judgment values from the painters. The body entombment was presented in its original size, shape, kind and color complying with the law of nature. In addition, the measurements and the proportions of the living creatures that were around d the death served as a point of reference in making the Entombment justification to be a real event (Zirpolo, 2008). However, death body manifested itself when the limbs and other parts of the body could not be able to perform any duty of life function. Nevertheless, apart from the color, size, function and the kind composition abilities evaluated, individual confirming dignity of the entombed body was addressed. For instance, the clothing used in the death event presented type, functio n and dignity, a factor that was very essential in the ancient painting. The Raphael entombment picture was pleasing and appealing; it had a mixture of old men and youths without indicating a virtual emptiness. Additionally, the attitude and gestures were not appearing in the entombed feature as the mourners were in full control of the entombed movement activities (harmony in accordance with the action). The entombment emotions were presented moving in different directions presenting grief and anger.

When does compensation time start under the fair labor standards act Assignment

When does compensation time start under the fair labor standards act - Assignment Example Clemens, 328 U.S 680. However, there was some amendments into the Act in 1949 which allowed that compensability of the changing clothes or washing clothes at the beginning of each workday should be the subject of appropriately committed to the collective bargaining. Though the policy was fair to the workers, the policy was best handled in the collective bargaining of the employees. Secondly, the term clothe is a general meaning. Clothes can denote anything worn by a person such as dress, shirt o pants. It has no other special meaning which means when someone says that need to be compensated for wearing clothes, the court cannot hold that decision as it is absurd to compensated a person for just wearing the clothes. Protective clothing is both integral and indispensable part of the main activities which clearly indicate the employee as covered and hence can attract compensation. In the Sandifer V. United states steel corp., the item under discussion was never distinguished as protective clothing. Despite the fact that the term â€Å"changing† clothes was given a broader meaning during the amendment to include changing one clothes to wear working clothes or putting over another layer of cloth; whether one chooses to change the clothes when in reporting to job or when on arrival at the workplace is a purely personal choice. One can only choose to do such things. For instance, a worker may opt to wear the working clothes while still at home while the other would wear it when one report to the job. In the two scenarios, it is a matter of personal choice. In such a scenario, it becomes hard to allow for compensation for time spent in â€Å"changing clothes†. Applying the principle as discussed above, donning and doffing off clothing as presented by the plaintiff can only be interpreted as â€Å"changing clothes†. Out of the twelve items under the suit brought forward by Sandifer as

Its 7 questions about political science Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 750 words

Its 7 questions about political science - Essay Example First, policies of the government must reflect the wishes that the people have. Other conditions state that leaders in government must be elected, and elections need to be free and fair. Fourth, people must take part in any political process. Fifth, the available information must be of high-quality. Finally, the majority must rule. Political equality relates to the concept that every individual carries an equal weight in voting as well as other political decision-making. Greenberg et al. argue that this principle is crucial in an ideal democratic society since democracy is a means of making key decisions. Political liberty is the third component of democracy. It relates to the fundamental freedoms crucial to the expression and formation of the popular will as well as its transformation into policy. The necessities of political liberty include freedoms of religion and conscience, of the press, of speech, and of association and assembly. Greenberg at al. argue that the fundamental principles of democracy cannot exist if the mentioned liberties lack (12). In the â€Å"Democracy for the Few†, Dr. Parenti describes how the society is majorly divided into two sections; the working class and the owning class. He goes ahead to explain the individuals under the owning class, where he described them as well-to-do people and in most cases are wealthy and live in the profits of their businesses. In this class, he recognized individuals who owns large amount of shareholders from bigger corporation as well as the small scale and struggling business owners. He compared the small and the giant business owners as squirrels and elephants to enable him provide a better perspective of who can bully their ways in the market and society set up. Parenti also mentioned working class, and he was able to describe them as those individuals who were able to live and depend on salaries, wages, and pensions. He

Interviews and Reflection Report Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words

Interviews and Reflection Report - Essay Example I aimed to understand the perception and awareness of people about the different forms of mental illness that exists in today’s society and how most people think about handling people with psychological problems. Before the interview was conducted I hypothesized that most people will have some form of knowledge about mental illnesses and at least 80% will be able to name three different types of mental illnesses where depression might be the most common. I expected that most people will understand that not all patients are a threat to society and that through proper counselling and clinical therapies, people with mental illnesses can recover and lead a normal life as well. Furthermore, I expected a very average result when it came to people knowing where to seek help in order to help a mentally ill person they knew. After I had conducted the interview, the results were a bit different than what I had expected. Most people knew about mental illnesses and 100% of the people were able to name mental problems. However, contrary to my expectation, alcoholism and drug addiction were the most popularly known addiction problems. This may be because of the increases awareness programme that works with addiction problems. Also, most people were shocked when they heard that 1 in 5 people were mentally ill and 90% of the subjects said they did not know that mental illness was a huge problem. 80% of the subjects believed that mentally ill people were a challenge to society and needed proper asylums and rehabilitation centres to help they recover. Most importantly, only 1 of my subject was able to name 2 organizations that worked for mentally ill people. The results indicate that even though most people of different age groups were aware of mental problems there was widespread lack of sensitization among the people especially among the middle aged people. However, people did not know that mental problems were so widespread. The results also highlighted the fact that most

The immigration trend Essay Example for Free

The immigration trend Essay In the past six years the immigration trend of Dominicans in Puerto Rico have saw an upward surge, both documented and undocumented ones. Although most of what gets into the news are those who have come to Puerto Rico through illegal means and of which many have perished or have been compromised. This influx of Dominicans to Puerto Rico has been attributed to the economic crisis in their country but no singular reason has been identified at present. At present the number continues to rise and legal actions against illegal Dominican immigrants have also been intensified but the smuggling and illegal passage continues. According to wikipedia. com, â€Å"immigration is the act of moving to or settling in another country or region, temporarily or permanently. † Therefore, an immigrant is an individual who is determined to live and make a living in the country which distinguishes him/her from a traveler or visitor. The number of immigrants in a particular country especially if it does not have stringent rules on immigration can only be approximated, and it can be said that many people living and working in Puerto Rico are illegal immigrants. The legal migrant workers can be monitored since their entry to the country is documented; it has been reported by the Migration Policy Institute that from 1998 to 2002, the documented and legal Dominican immigrants in the United States is at 20, 000 and 200,000 who were granted permanent and temporary status respectively. Based on the same report, the illegal immigrants are said to be close to 109,000 in the same years. The legal immigrants are in a more favorable situation than those who do not and generally not much attention has been given them. This is not the same for the illegal immigrants, whose pitiful plights have been reported over and over again. Many have died at sea or have been intercepted trying to cross the Mona Passage to get into Puerto Rico aboard the notoriously dangerous yolas (Brown, 2004; Taipei Times, 2004; Matos, 2002). The primary reason for wanting to get to Puerto Rico is to find a better life for the individual and his/her family, but research on this aspect is very limited and dated. Thus, this project surveyed Dominican immigrants to determine reasons for coming to Puerto Rico, ways in which they arrived in the commonwealth, kinds of jobs they have, income and demographic data like educational attainment, sex, and age and immigration status. The data from this project can help give a picture of the current situation of Dominican immigrants in the commonwealth and can be used as baseline data for further research. Sample The approximated number of Dominican population in the United States is at 300,000; thus for this survey a sample of 50 Dominican immigrants was projected since it is a viable sample given the breadth of this project. The surveyed respondents were identified randomly but were recruited through a referral of friends and coworkers. The respondents for this survey were made up of 28 females and 22 males; their mean average age was 37ranging from 15-59 years old. Instrument The questionnaire used in this survey was designed by the author and was made up of questions to determine demographic data and current work conditions (income, type of job) and their reasons for coming to the region and ways they got here. The 10 item questionnaire was in checklist form to ensure ease of answering. Data Analysis Responses were tallied and analyzed using the measures of central tendency and dispersion. Graphs were used to give a visual presentation of the results of the data.

A Critical Evaluation of The Value of Play Essay Example for Free

A Critical Evaluation of The Value of Play Essay Introduction Play has a vital role in a child’s learning and development. Each adult has their own interpretation of what play is, but play can be interpreted as, ‘children being given the opportunity to use resources and facilities provided in order to develop their skills and expand their knowledge. This can be done spontaneously through imaginative play, and using communication to enhance their independent learning. Play can also be seen as a way a child learns and develops emotionally, physically and socially. DEFINITIONS OF PLAY What is play? Play can be interpreted as, children being given the opportunity to use their imaginative skills, to learn as well as develop their physical, social, emotional and cognitive skills. Play can be child initiated, or adult led, where they provided with resources and support in both situations. Play is an attitude that manifests itself in different behaviours. Gavey (1991) stated â€Å"play was a forward and backwaref 7cd movement where different levels of action, communication, and interaction are needed. It could be regarded as deeply serious and purposeful or trivial and purposeless, (Attfiled 2005). Similarly, (Molyes J) stated â€Å"play is without a doubt the most natural way children learn all over the world†. Babies and young children learn through interaction with an adult, who could be parents, siblings, other family members as well as practitioners who have responsibility of looking after the well-being of a child. However, Froebel stated, play is what children are involved with when they initiate a task and work is what they do when fulfil a task required by an adult. Bruce 2005. The role of an adult is entering a child play that is child initiated, and intervening to extend the play without interfering. Bruce Children need to play with objects and materials and resources in order for play to integrate cognitive processes and stimulate the imagination. The value of play Play is seen as the â€Å"only† way that young children learn and develop their social, physical, cognitive and emotional skills. Bruce(2005) Value of play A practitioner who understands the importance of play, offers children  freedom, where they are able to choose their own activities. * Gives a child freedom * Responsibilities * Child initiated * Adult led * Risks * Consequences Child initiated play Child initiated play can be interpreted as any activity that is started by a child to meet their personal needs and interests, Moyles J (2008). This can alos be seen as active learning, where the childis engaging in the activity they are doing. Bruner argued and put forward children require choice and should be able to make their own decisions in order to learn and develop their skills. For example in a reception class where children are of the age 4-5 years, being given the freedom of being able to choose any activity available to them and to carry out their chosen task or activity in their choice of environment can be seen as child initaitiated play. The adult has no role in the choice of play as the child has the control of what they are setting out to do. However the adult provides the child with resouces. Through child initaied play children learn to become creative through critical thinking. When having achoen an activity to arry out they start to make cnectuoins which transfroms their understanding. Howevr if a child does not understand or have the skill to carry out an activity and feels they want to, they tend to approach an adult who then supports the child by interevening. (BRUCE) the adult can then support the child by scaffolding (BRUNER) for example Similary Vygotakys stated in his theory a childs needs to be independent in order to learn, however a child still requires the adult to present to aide them when needed. For example. By allowing a child the choice of free play they are able to explore DEFINITION By investigating childen learn and are able to ask the adult questions where the adult will support them by asking open eneded question and providing them with encouragement.

Conflict Management And Dispute Resolution

Conflict Management And Dispute Resolution Conflict can be defined as a struggle which is emanates from different ideas, values and beliefs. Most of the time, misunderstanding and miscommunication among people cause conflict. Furthermore, conflict lies not in objective reality, but in peoples minds (Fisher, 1981). Disputes, on the other hand, are such issues that are less deep than conflict but still very important. As human beings evolve and their technology grows through time, their awareness expands and they take more responsibility for making their own decisions. This is especially true of personal decisions. Humans want to be the ones that drive decisions in their lives; they do not want anyone else to decide on their behalf. Thus, conflicts arise. Often, conflicts occur because people differ in their ways of thinking. Because of this, conflicts can make people look at problems and issues not only from their perspectives but from others as well. Consequently, conflicts are not always negative; they can also bring about new ideas. These new ideas can help people to change, which is useful because everything in nature is changing in every moment. Conflict shows itself in every part of our lives. One of them can be the commercial activities that play an important role in todays world. For example, conflict can arise in commercial contracts. When this happens, the possibility of dispute arising is much higher. In this essay, we will discuss the conflict and dispute in commercial contracts and explain that whether or not they are inevitable. In addition, we will compare and contrast the different methods for resolutions of dispute in commercial contracts. Finally, we will present an example of dispute and explain how to solve it. Section A Are conflicts and disputes inevitable on commercial projects? Conflict and dispute definitions Before we can determine whether or not conflict and disputes must be avoided, we must first define both terms and determine the differences between the two. Conflict and dispute are two common terms. Although sometimes they are interpreted as equal types, there are some differences that will be mentioned. Conflict First, we will discuss the definition of conflict. There exist many definitions of conflict (Foss, 1979; Gelles, 1978; Straus, 1978) cited by Straus (1979). Mary Parker (1925) states that we can summarize conflict in one word: difference. A more comprehensive definition by Strauss (1979) suggests three distinctions: conflict of interest, conflict, and hostility. Conflict of interest A conflict of interest means that each member of the group prefers to seek their own interest, which is often different from other people. In other words, they want to live out their own lives from others. According to Straus (1979), the relationship between the amount of conflict (conflict of interest) and the well being of the group is curve linear. It means that existence of conflict can have a positive impact on the well being of group. However, if it exceeds more than the optimum point, it would be detrimental. Conflict Coser (1956) uses conflict to refer to the means or behavior used to pursue ones interest rather than conflict of interest, itself Straus (1979). According to Straus (1979), conflict means tactics which are used by a person in the response to the conflict of interests. Hostility Hostility occurs when feeling of dislike takes a place of sympathy among the members of the group. Often this fact is also named as conflict but in paradox of this idea, there exists some conflict theories that believe that hostility will not appear if conflict exists. This is because it can protect people from getting hostile in a way that can express their point of views and interests and do not let anyone to force them. Consequently, the author considers hostility as a negative fact in groups. Conflict exists in every part of our lives such as commercial activities. Contrary to popular belief, commercial conflict is important to a countrys economy. Dorussen (2006) concluded that trade in some commodities will have a strong impact on conflict in comparing with other goods. The reason for this fact is that some commodities have much more significant important on the security of states than others. Recently oil industries as well as high tech ones, have the importance impact though. And also (Park, 1976; Abolfathi, 1976; Ward, 1976; Polachek, 1980) cited by Dorussen (2006) have reached to the conclusion that when the amount of trading oil increases, the exporting country will become more hostile toward oil importers. There exists three ways of dealing with conflict: domination, compromise and integration (Parker, 1925). First, domination arises from victory of one party to another one. Second, compromise means to get along with each other to settle peace. In this case, one side loses something and gets something in order to agree to end up the conflict. According to Parker (1925), compromise is the basis of trade union tactics, in collective bargaining, the trade unionist asks for more than he expects to get, allows for what is going to be lopped off in the conference. Thus we often do not know what he really thinks he should have, and this ignorance is a great barrier to dealing with conflict fruitfully. Third, integration is when two parts decide to integrate with each other. This is the most efficient way of dealing with conflict. There is no need to sacrifice, and both parties will benefit from each other and become satisfied. Dispute The distinction that is made by Burton (1993) cited by Fenn (2006) between conflict and dispute, is based on two parameters: time and content. He considers disputes as short term disagreements which can be solved easily. On the other hand, conflicts are deep-rooted, long term problems which need much effort to be solved. These types of disagreements can occur independently and, in some cases, dispute can exist inside the long term conflict. Are conflict and dispute inevitable? Considering the evidence presented above, conflict and dispute differ from each other. They both can occur and deserve our consideration. In this section, we will discuss how conflicts are inevitable and how disputes can be avoided. According to Parker (1925), conflict exists in the world which we are living. Instead of ignoring its existence, it is better to find a way to embrace it. We can change the unpleasant situation in a way that benefit from. Conflict is one of the issues that is better to be accepted and get advantage of it. In some cases, dispute can exist inside the long term conflict Burton (1993). The school of western thought believes that: conflict is part of dynamic capitalism and an integral part of commercialism (Fenn, 2006). If conflict cannot be managed properly, dispute may rise. In other words, in contrast with conflict, dispute can be avoided. Therefore these two areas should be considered: First, conflict management or dispute avoidance; and second, dispute resolutions. Some conflict theorists believed that conflict is an inevitable part of human beings life and without the changes which are caused by conflict, the risk of collapse among the social groups such as academic departments, or family will get higher (Adams, 1965; Coser, 1956; Dahrendorf, 1959; Scanzoni, 1972; Simmel, 1955; Sprey, 1969) cited by Straus (1979). If conflict fades away, there will be no hope to adapt to changed circumstances and therefore hostility will arise. Conflict is defined as a process that arises when group of people or a person believes that other groups or other people are thinking frustrating (McKenna, 2006) and Fisher (1981) has defined that everybody has different perception and different way of thinking. By analyzing theses two theories, we can understand that conflict is inevitable; because people are different. Suggestions to prevent dispute Regarding to this section, we can conclude that conflict is inevitable. If we cannot manage conflict properly, dispute will arise. Disputes are caused by conflicts and sometimes they exist inside long term conflicts. (Burton 1993) the same story exists in commercial contracts and because they are important facts, there are some suggestion on how to manage conflict and consequently avoid disputes. By reviewing dispute resolution guidance published by office of government (United Kingdom) commerce (OGC, 2002) we can understand that contractual disputes can destroy the relationships between the client and supplier. In some cases, they have been spends lots of time to build it. Thus, this kind of dispute is time consuming and expensive. One of the roles of government is to emphasize on the importance of the good relationships between both parties of a commercial trade or the client and suppliers. There are three facts that are advised by OGC (2002) to prevent dispute in commercial contracts: 1. Stating the expectations and intentions at the beginning of the contract. Everything must be clear. Besides, dispute resolutions which both parties agree to provide in the time of dispute, should be mentioned. 2. Managing the contract is one of the most important facts that should be paid attention during having the contract. Both parties should be aware of any kind of disputes that may occur. Try to find the sign of dispute before it arises. 3. Considering the importance of managing the contract which is near to be expired, is one of the significant things that both parties must learn. Section B Compare and contrast of dispute resolution techniques Dispute resolution methods It has been concluded that conflict is inevitable but dispute can be avoided in commercial contracts. Although it can be avoided, there still some probability of happening. Therefore here are dispute resolution methods which can be used in commercial contracts. ADR is an alternative dispute resolutions .It does not mean the same to all the people. In Europe and much of the rest of the world it connects to those resolutions that exclude arbitration and litigation. On the other hand, in the Unites States, ADR conclude arbitration (Moses ,2008). Negotiation Negotiation is a common way of dispute resolution which both parties try to solve their problems without the need of others (OGC, 2002). Mediation Mediation is a nonbinding and confidential process (Moses, 2008). In this kind of resolution, the third party will meet each party privately and express their point of views to each other. Mediation sometimes known as an interest based procedure whereas arbitration is the right based procedure. Adjudication Adjudication is a quick and relatively inexpensive way of resolving a dispute, whereby an impartial third party adjudicator decides the issues between the parties. It will almost certainly be quicker and less expensive than arbitration or litigation. Section 108 of the Housing Grants, Construction and Regeneration Act (1996 ) gives the right to parties to virtually all construction contracts to refer any dispute arising under the contract to adjudication at any time. If the contract does not contain any adjudication procedure, or it does but the procedure does not comply with the Act, then before you can refer a dispute to adjudication you need to make sure that the contract is a construction contract as defined by the Act;(Construction Umbrella Bodies Adjudication Task Group,2003). Litigation: Litigation is a formal process which is a binding and non confidential procedure, which is held in the civil courts (Moses, 2008). Arbitration: Arbitration is a formal and nonbinding (sometimes binding) dispute resolution .where the third party exists to make the final decision for two other parties (Moses, 2008). Choosing a resolution method By comparing the dispute resolutions that discussed before: Mediation is not a binding resolution. -litigation is not a confidential resolution. Adjudication is a resolution that has some limitations. (Not being useful for all kinds of contracts as discussed in the previous part). These days, in many commercial contracts, parties choose arbitration as the default dispute resolution. As they got clear vision about the courts and their actions, they preferred to rely on the courts to solve their commercial disputes; Because of its confidentiality, and also in some case the need to continue their relationships. (Fenn, 2006).In Mentschikoff (1961) idea, the reasons that why we use arbitration in commercial groups are: speed, lower expense, more expert decision, and greater privacy. According Moses (2008), there exist two main reasons that why commercial parties choose arbitration as a dispute resolution. First, the forum is neutral. it means that it is possible to stay out of the other partys court. Second, the parties which are included in 140 countries that are under the control of New York convention must obey the award that comes out of the arbitration and that is the reason that we mentioned before that arbitration is sometimes a binding process. As Charles Newton Hulvey(1929) mentions ,there are 2 classification of agreements to arbitrate in commercial disputes.1:agreements to just submit existing commercial disputes.2:agreements to submit all commercial disputes including those will may occur in future. Arbitration has more advantages (Moses, 2008).One of the important advantages of arbitration is its confidentiality. Besides, parties choose arbitration because they can freely choose the arbitrator. Another advantage is that the discovery fact is less in arbitration therefore it takes shorter to get to the conclusion. One of the points of arbitration in the past was that it was less expensive in compared with litigation. Many companies do not think that it is the advantage any more. Buhring-uhle (2005) cited by Moses (2008), mentioned:more than half (51%) of the respondents thought that the cost advantage did not exist. However with considering all the facts, parties tend to choose arbitration because of its advantages and it still worth the cost. Besides the advantages, Arbitration has some disadvantages as well. If the advantage of fewer discoveries can be viewed from different point, it would become a disadvantage. Especially for those kind of disputes which need much more discovery and are extended. Fewer discoveries mean here less chance for the claimant. Moreover, in arbitration there is lack of requesting multiple appeals. This can be considered as a disadvantage when the arbitrator has made a wrong decision it would be frustrating to a party to accept this award with lack of ability to have an appeal. To wrap up, we got to the conclusion that, although we can prevent dispute in commercial contracts with some methods, it can be take place in some situations. Knowing how to deal with commercial disputes is important and one of the significant methods in dispute resolution is arbitration. Section C Example of use One of the dispute resolution methods is negotiating. Positional bargaining is a negotiation method in which each party only focuses on what they want, and dont pay attention to hidden interests. According to Fisher and Ury (1981), there are three trends through positional bargaining in the conflict resolutions between parties: Hard, Soft, and Principled Negotiation. Principled negotiation is suggested to parties to get better results more amicably. This method is separated into four parts (Fisher and Ury, 1981): 1. People: separate the people from the problem. 2. Interests: focus on interests not positions. 3. Options: generate a variety of possibilities before deciding what to do. 4. Criteria: insist that the result be based on some objective standards. In order to understand principled negotiation, we will review a fictional case study below. By reviewing this case, we can understand better how to use the stages of principled negotiation. Note: The following case study was created based on a true past experience of an employee in a construction company. Some details and events were modified to fit with the goals of this essay. Please note that the case study is written in the first person. In April 2009, I was working as a civil engineer in one of the building construction companies in Iran. One day something strange happened to me. While I was working in the construction site, a woman came to the site and asked me whether I could help her to find the project manager. I showed his room and told her that she was lucky that she came that day, because the project manager was not in a meeting. I brought her in the room and stayed along to introduce her to the project manager. The woman then proceeded to explain that she was one of the customers that had bought one of the apartments in advance. She wondered if she could get her apartment earlier than the specified time. She wanted the project manager to finish her apartment earlier. (It was possible but a somewhat costly).The project manager, instead of listening carefully to her, just said no. She repeated her request once more and the project manager interrupted her and said:No; it is completely impossible. The woman repl ied: You do not even pay attention to me. Why dont you listen to me to solve the problem? He answered: Because it is impossible. We have never done such a thing in our projects. When I saw this, I immediately thought that there was a problem with the project managers behavior: he didnt separate the people from the problem (Stage 1 of Principled Negotiation). In fact, he was very hard on the woman and did not even spend time to get the problem. After a 10 minute discussion, he listened completely to her. At last he said:It is impossible because we cannot finish constructing one apartment completely and then working on other flats; it is too costly for us. When he said this, he forgot that he should have focused on interests instead of positions (Stage 2). It would be better if he listened to her and paid attention and instead of not listening. If he did, he could tell her the issues and also asked her if she had solution to solve the problem. After few minutes, the client said you just say it is impossible. What if I pay all the additional costs? The project manager just kept saying:it is impossible and against the rules. We have never done such a thing in construction projects. In this stage, the project manager should have known that, he could invent options for mutual gain (Stage 3). He could have thought more about her suggestion and also presented his own suggestions. He also could not reach to the final stage of principled negotiation which is invent options for mutual gain (Stage 4). The woman got frustrated and without saying good bye went out of the room. After a week I understood that we should work harder to complete that apartment earlier. It was the order of the board manager. He told the project manager she is one of our best clients that we get so many benefits from her. If we keep her satisfied, that would be point for us in future projects. The project manager somehow got shamed. Because he did not know how to negotiate properly with her and actually if he had done so, he would have got benefit from the good negotiation by getting the money that the woman has suggested and spent it in the project. To conclude, as far as the conflict is inevitable, knowing how to negotiate properly is an advantage that only some people have. Principled negotiation is the best way that everybody can use and get benefit from the negotiation and conflict.

William Shakespeare :: essays research papers

William Shakespeare 1564 to 1616 Family and Education -born in Stratford-on-Avon -his father was a prominant citizen or "gentleman" -Shakespeare read everything available in print -he read the classics, French and Italian plays, legends, folk plays, mythology, historical chronicles, and the Bible -Gutenberg printing press had been invented 100 years earlier -married Ann Hathaway and had three children - Susanna, and the twins Hamnet and Judith -Shakespeare died in 1616 of Brights' disease -in Shakespeare's will he left his house and lands to his eldest daughter, his wife his "second-best bed", his youngest daughter a silver bowl, and enough money for each of his fellow actors to buy a ring to wear in his memory -Shakespeare's grave reads Good friend, for Jesus sake forbear To dig the dust enclosed here Blessed be the man that spares these stones And cursed be he that moves my bones. -seven years after his death his friends John Hemings and Henry Condell published a book containing 36 plays, which was called the "First Folio" -"He was not of an age, but for all time." Ben Johnson His Life in the Theatre -considered to be the greatest dramatist in the world -only the Bible is read more than Shakespeare's plays -from 1593 - 1613 he wrote 37 plays, acted, helped manage an acting troup and was part owner of the "Old Globe Theatre" -1593-1594 the theatres were closed because of the plague and Shakespeare wrote his narrative poetry -little is known about Shakespeare because he did not write about himself, nor did he publish his own plays, he made his money by writing plays that were performed for an audience -his first play was The

Using Music to Teach Ethos :: Personal Narrative Teaching Essays

Using Music to Teach Ethos Introduction After teaching high school English reading and writing for four years, life led me to apply for a position teaching English at a state university. I was hired as an adjunct faculty member, but in my eyes, I was basically a utility man in the Major Leagues. The brief hour-long meeting with the adjunct coordinator was my first exposure to rhetoric and anything related to it. I knew what a rhetorical question was—don’t we all?—and I had heard people make comments such as â€Å"He might think he knows what he’s doing, but in all reality, his talk is all rhetoric.† Still, did I know how to teach this stuff to other people? On the college level? I sat down with the information the coordinator had given me and I found many helpful hints, ideas, and terms. I love terms. If I am given a list of terms, I can often use the definitions to find the common links and make the material teachable. I did an online search and found a Web site that broke down the various elements of rhetoric and included a list of terms. I was in heaven, rhetorically speaking. This first exposure to rhetoric was, I must admit, dull and dreary, much like Latin seemed to be where I used to teach. Dead languages, dead concepts—were the Ancient cultures good for anything other than art, stories, language, and great food? I decided that this seemingly dry material would have to be souped up a bit to attract college freshmen whose attention spans run between 10 and 15 minutes. Then, as Red Skelton might say, I had an apostrophe. I realized that the compositions my students write are comprised of sections, each an entity unto itself which contributes something to the overall essay. I remembered my senior year at UGA, taking â€Å"History and Analysis of Rock and Roll Music,† and the lessons we learned about the different sections of a song and how those sections are merged to create one complete unit. After reading a bit more about rhetorical appeals—ethical, logical, and emotional—I realized that the songs we listen to every day can be linked to this previously unknown, dry material.

Brand Report – Monster v Red Bull

At the heart of every great organization, Is a world class product or service and in any competitive business market, organizations rival to be every consumer's â€Å"first choice†. Effective brand management Is essential to every business – building strong brands that not only reflect value and credibility, but also outlive the product or service the business offers, Is a challenge for many organizations today.The FMC (Fast Moving Consumer Goods) industry is one of the biggest industries in the world, simply because of the rand's and products that make up this sector such as Colgate, Dove, Palmolive and the list goes on. This report will compare two FMC brands within the Australian market, namely Monster Energy and Red Bull, and the consumers levels of brand awareness towards the selected brands. It will also discuss the importance of brand association and how this is measured.Through the use of these brands, Monster Energy and Red Bull, the report will illustrate the importance of an organization's ability to continuously build brand awareness with its consumers. Launched by Hansen Natural In 2002, Monster Energy penetrated the Australian market In 2009 ND has since bumped up the consumption of energy drinks In Australia to 225 million liters, resulting In gross sale of $2. 37 billion, according to Monster Corps's 2012 annual report. This figure also includes Australia's number one selling energy drink company, Red Bull, with a market share of 40%.As defined by Kettle (2009), a brand can be a name, sign, logo, symbol or a combination of these, that identifies an organization's product or service, differentiating them from other competitors. According to Keller (1993), brand equity is conceptualized from the perspective of the individual consumer. He also asserts that customer-based brand equity (CUBE) occurs when the consumer is familiar with the brand and whilst holding favorable, strong and unique brand associations in memory (1993). CUBE (Cus tomer-Based Brand Equity) is further defined by Keller (1993, up. ) as the differential effect of brand knowledge on consumer response to the marketing of the brand. Brand knowledge Is defined In In terms of two components; brand awareness and brand Image. According to Keller (1 993), brand awareness relates to brand recall and recognition performance by consumers, whilst brand image refers to the set of associations that consumers hold in memory. Since its launch in 2002, Monster Energy has developed strong brand salience, despite its non-evocative brand name.Placing the word ‘energy' with ‘Monster assists the customer to associate the product with the correct category. Brand salience is the first step in Seller's CUBE model (2008) and where organizations must establish who they are and what the brand represents to consumers. Establishing an identity and creating brand awareness is important at this stage, as it is when customers initially create perceptions about the b rand. McDonald & Sharp (2003) assert that a brand that has some level of brand awareness Is more likely to be selected by the consumer, than a brand unknown to the consumer.A challenge FMC companies must consider, Is the consumer's lack of decision making process Involved at the time of purchase, making It difficult for new brands to penetrate an already infiltrated industry. When Monster was initially low. Despite heavy marketing promotions and sporting associations, Monster's position within Australia's energy drinks category was relatively low, in comparison to market dominator and competitor, Red Bull. In comparison to its rival, Red Bull, Monster's brand salience lacks depth in the minds of Australian consumers.Although the Monster's logo of a monster claw shaped as an ‘M' is easily recognizable internationally, Australian consumers still lack the ability to recognize or recall the product category in which Monster belongs. The breadth of brand awareness concerns the rang e of purchase and usage situations in which the brand comes to mind (Keller, 2008), which largely depends on the organization of the brand and the product knowledge in consumers' memory.Today, Red Bull is the most recognized ND profitable energy drink in the world and is a beverage consumed at any time throughout the day. Both Red Bull and Monster offer a range of energy products, targeting consumption at different times throughout a given day. Both brands have broad brand awareness, consumers associating them with extreme sports, beverage for consumption early, mid or late in the day and an energy booster. Experiment 1 A research survey was conducted with a sample of 30 participants, 1 5 of which were male and 15 female (Fig 1 & 2).The objective of the survey research was to: Determine if males or females consume energy drinks and how frequently To determine the position of both Monster Energy and Red Bull in the mind of consumers Determine when and where the energy drink is most c onsumed Procedure The survey was formed with the appropriate questions to provide the data required to support brand awareness research on the energy drinks category. Participants were recruited from Speeches Australia Pity Ltd and also several students from the University of Western Sydney, Parameter campus.Results The first question was to determine how frequently males and females drink energy drinks throughout any given week (Fig 3). 19 participants reported drinking 1 or less energy drinks throughout the week with only 2 drinking 5 times a week. The next question asked what energy drink they consume and Red Bull came in at 43% popularity and Monster ranking third place at 20% Fig 4). The third question was asked to determine when and where the participants consumed their selected energy drink (Fig 5). 17 participants reported having an energy drink in the afternoons, with mornings being the time energy drinks were least consumed.Consumption within the workplace was reported as being the most common place of consumption with social events ranking in second with a reported 9 participants (Fig ). Summary Although the sample was small, the data research supports the statistics that Red Bull Energy rates higher in consumer's minds than Monster Energy. Despite both brands being strongly associated with humor, fun, excitement and extreme sports, one can conclude that because energy drinks are most consumed during the day and within the workplace, the breadth of brand awareness for both Monster and Red Bull is relatively broad.According to Asker (1992), brand association is anything linked in memory to a brand associations enable a company to differentiate their brands in the market and can be tildes as an organization's competitive advantage. Keller (2013) classifies brand associations into three categories; attributes, benefits and attitudes. Attributes are the features of the brand, benefits are the values the consumer attaches to the brand and attitudes refer s to the consumer's overall evaluation of the brand. Building brand equity can also be done through the leverage of related or secondary brand associations (Keller, 2013).Secondary brand association can be an effective way for an organization to reinforce existing strong, favorable and strong associations if the existing brand is deficient. Red Bull uses celebrity endorsements, sporting, cultural and community events as secondary brand associations. Low & Lamb (2000) discusses the importance of firms measuring being able to measure associations with their brands and the techniques that can be used to accurately measure consumer brand associations. Brand image, attitude and perceived quality have been used to measure brand associations for many years.After much research, Low & Lamb concluded that not all brand scales such as personality or attributes can be applied across all categories, therefore, acting as separate constructs as opposed to nee-dimensional brand associations. This g ives rise to the idea that consumers now have more developed memory structures for more familiar brands. The authors also suggest that care must be taken when measuring associations of familiar brands – as quoted by the author ‘Familiarity moderates the dimensionality of brand associations'.Asker (1996) asserts that in order for organizations to perform optimally and allocate resources fairly across its portfolio of brands, it must implement common measures of performance. Managers should seek new branding strategies, to always from the same category as their product, but from the other brand categories. This will provide fresh ideas and new insight, resulting in new product positioning in the market. Kara also discusses the use of ten different measurements used to measure brand associations.He also asserts that the one measurement of brand equity that can be used is price premium. The reason behind this is that regardless of brand, any driver of brand equity will affe ct price premium. The consumer's association with any given brand is important to any organization wishing to maintain competition in the business market. Suppresses (2000) discusses the lack of knowledge regarding brand association relevant to other brands in other product categories. Suppresses points out the challenges brought about by private label brands.Suppresses also discusses the ways by which firms can research consumers' brand associations including lengthy personal interviews as opposed to group interviews and validating given answers to questions. By validating answers, one can increase the probability of detecting hidden associations. Suppresses concludes that brand managers need to attain a deeper understanding f the sources of brand equity in order to implement optimal brand strategies and to maintain effective communication. The way by which firms undertake research should delve into the unconscious and non-verbal associations that consumers have for their brands (2 000).Experiment 2 Personal interviews were conducted with two participants, male and female, aged 27 and 19 respectively. The objective of the survey research was to: the emotions associated with Red Bull's secondary association through sporting imagery Determine the emotions evokes when the participants brand Red Bull Procedure The interview was conducted to determine the emotions consumers have Bull and its secondary brand association. Both participants (Male A and were students of University of Western Sydney, Parameter campus. Rest The words ‘RED BULL† was vocalizes to each participant two times.The FL to measure their initial reaction and the second was to validate that area reacted immediately with instant recognition and slight excitement. Fem. recognition but not of excitement. When validating their reactions, Male loves the brand and is a regular consumer however, Female B said she c Red Bull but is not a fan of the taste. A picture of the Red Bull logo (Fig. 5; to both participants and both reacted similarly, with recognition. Male A recognition and affordability for the brand with the use of facial express head gestures.Similar to the reacted of Female B, although she wasn't t the product. The third measurement was through the use of imagery re Bull's secondary association, sporting endorsements (Fig. 8). Male Bi's ex. increased and he vocalizes his interest in X-tree sporting events and of Red Bull's consistent involvement in the sporting arena. Female Bi's en however, dropped and was visible by her posture and lack of verbalism Brands can evoke strong emotions and memory associations from consul that one's negative perception of the brand as a result of taste or expert difficult for organizations to change.The research also illustrates that the association consumers hold with Red Bull is a positive one. Following Ex and Experiment 2, the results reflect the premise that the selected bran extensive brand salience with consumers and that if consumers are expo positive marketing, perceptions tend to remain. Red Bull is a superior BRB otherwise saturated energy drink category, posing increased competition riveter label beverages and other energy brands. By continuously impair strategic branding, firms can be certain that with these strategies, it will competitive edge within the business market.Brand management with industry is of utmost importance, as monopoly retailers continue to dicta brands to display on their shelves, minimizing consumer choice and the increasing competition within all product categories. The energy drinks exception, with consumers increasingly becoming more health conscious industry battling to remain competitive with an increasingly globalizes market. With the right brand strategies and managers to drive and imply strategies, one can be confident that Red Bull will continue to dominate energy market share. Appendix Fig 7.